i'm a little confused. when the cubs.com article says they offered him a 1-year deal, etc., etc., isn't this tendering him a contract? No. The tender, I believe, requires some official paperwork. I'm sure the offer was more or less verbal, and probably significantly below the permissable arbitration level. In other words, they would have had to tender a contract offer of $3m (or close), and they probably said, "Hey Mark, we'll offer you 1 year for $1.5m". gotcha .. makes sense. thanks. In essence, for an arbitration-eligible player (3-6 years service time), "tendering a contract offer" is exactly the same as "offering arbitration".