Question regarding assessing runs to a pitcher

[Danny82]

Scenario: Pitcher A starts an inning and allows a lead-off single to Batter 1. Pitcher A is then relieved and Pitcher B comes into the game. Pitcher B gets Batter 2 to ground to the second baseman, who tries to turn two, but is only able to force out Batter 1 at second base. Batter 2 is safe at first. Next, Batter 3 comes up and hits a triple, scoring Batter 2.

 

Why is it that that run is assessed to Pitcher B? In all fairness, shouldn't that run be assessed to Pitcher A instead? The runner that scored would never have been on first base to begin with if Pitcher A had not allowed the lead-off batter to reach. I mean, assessing that run to Pitcher B is really a practice of form over substance isn't it?

[Transmogrified Tiger]

Scenario: Pitcher A starts an inning and allows a lead-off single to Batter 1. Pitcher A is then relieved and Pitcher B comes into the game. Pitcher B gets Batter 2 to ground to the second baseman, who tries to turn two, but is only able to force out Batter 1 at second base. Batter 2 is safe at first. Next, Batter 3 comes up and hits a triple, scoring Batter 2.

 

Why is it that that run is assessed to Pitcher B? In all fairness, shouldn't that run be assessed to Pitcher A instead? The runner that scored would never have been on first base to begin with if Pitcher A had not allowed the lead-off batter to reach. I mean, assessing that run to Pitcher B is really a practice of form over substance isn't it?

 

Because you can't assume the same result if that runner isn't on first. Maybe going from the windup causes Pitcher to overthrow a sinker that gets crushed for a HR, or maybe pitching from the windup allows him to strike out the side. We don't know, we just have to go by what actually happened. It may be unfair to Pitcher B, but by the same token it's not really fair to charge it to Pitcher A if Pitcher B can't get 3 outs without a runner on first coming around to score.

[fromthestretch]

Scenario: Pitcher A starts an inning and allows a lead-off single to Batter 1. Pitcher A is then relieved and Pitcher B comes into the game. Pitcher B gets Batter 2 to ground to the second baseman, who tries to turn two, but is only able to force out Batter 1 at second base. Batter 2 is safe at first. Next, Batter 3 comes up and hits a triple, scoring Batter 2.

 

Why is it that that run is assessed to Pitcher B? In all fairness, shouldn't that run be assessed to Pitcher A instead? The runner that scored would never have been on first base to begin with if Pitcher A had not allowed the lead-off batter to reach. I mean, assessing that run to Pitcher B is really a practice of form over substance isn't it?

 

That run is NOT charged to pitcher B. It's charged to pitcher A.

 

From the official MLB scoring rules at http://www.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp:

 

P1 walks A and is relieved by P2. B forces A at second. C grounds out, sending B to second. D singles, scoring B. Charge run to P1.

[Fred Hornkohl]

Scenario: Pitcher A starts an inning and allows a lead-off single to Batter 1. Pitcher A is then relieved and Pitcher B comes into the game. Pitcher B gets Batter 2 to ground to the second baseman, who tries to turn two, but is only able to force out Batter 1 at second base. Batter 2 is safe at first. Next, Batter 3 comes up and hits a triple, scoring Batter 2.

 

Why is it that that run is assessed to Pitcher B? In all fairness, shouldn't that run be assessed to Pitcher A instead? The runner that scored would never have been on first base to begin with if Pitcher A had not allowed the lead-off batter to reach. I mean, assessing that run to Pitcher B is really a practice of form over substance isn't it?

 

That run is NOT charged to pitcher B. It's charged to pitcher A.

 

From the official MLB scoring rules at http://www.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp:

 

P1 walks A and is relieved by P2. B forces A at second. C grounds out, sending B to second. D singles, scoring B. Charge run to P1.

 

I've always wondered who the run would be charged to in a situation like that one. Thanx for digging that up and posting it.

[fromthestretch]

Scenario: Pitcher A starts an inning and allows a lead-off single to Batter 1. Pitcher A is then relieved and Pitcher B comes into the game. Pitcher B gets Batter 2 to ground to the second baseman, who tries to turn two, but is only able to force out Batter 1 at second base. Batter 2 is safe at first. Next, Batter 3 comes up and hits a triple, scoring Batter 2.

 

Why is it that that run is assessed to Pitcher B? In all fairness, shouldn't that run be assessed to Pitcher A instead? The runner that scored would never have been on first base to begin with if Pitcher A had not allowed the lead-off batter to reach. I mean, assessing that run to Pitcher B is really a practice of form over substance isn't it?

 

That run is NOT charged to pitcher B. It's charged to pitcher A.

 

From the official MLB scoring rules at http://www.mlb.com/mlb/official_info/official_rules/official_scorer_10.jsp:

 

P1 walks A and is relieved by P2. B forces A at second. C grounds out, sending B to second. D singles, scoring B. Charge run to P1.

 

I've always wondered who the run would be charged to in a situation like that one. Thanx for digging that up and posting it.

 

No problem. I remember this happening a couple times when I was working as an official scorer.