So if win shares are predicated on pythagorean record, how do we know that the pythagorean projections are correct? I mean no stat is perfect right? There are always some variables at work that any given stat can't take into account. This isn't me just being argumentative, I just wonder sometimes about some of these sabermetrics. and for that matter why didn't Bill James use the pythagorean record? You know, I DID mathematically state and prove this 2 pages ago or so.... I know, I was asking the why not the how. Why didn't he use the Pythagorean expectation rather then real wins. Just wondering.