54 more hits (in 9.1 more innings) on the road; 20 of them doubles. [For the record, he had 6 more foul outs at home than away.] Is it also "random" that he gave up more than five hits 6 times at home and 16 times away? The other 3 away games were all five hit games but he had five or less hits 9 times at home. On the road, he pitched 1 less inning on average while giving up almost 2 more hits and 1 more double. What accounted for such a significant increase in hits on the road? If his defense is the same and the way parks play supposedly doesn't have any effect then what is it? What makes this blatant difference dismissible? Is it truly any more wise to assume we should ignore the splits if it must be something we can't measure like the hotel beds in places like Baltimore, Boston, Chicago, Cleveland, Detroit, Houston, Minnesota, New York, San Diego, San Francisco, Tampa Bay, Texas, and Toronto? If he just threw it over the plate more, or hated travelling, or couldn't sleep or needs his guy for his fix or just missed his little kitty does this make it any less relevant? It's pretty obvious his GB, K and BB rates would stay about the same. But it's pretty "[expletive]" to say the splits are irrelevant, there's nothing to it and offer nothing to attribute the increase to nor to suggest it'd stop. Just 19 games, all on the road, that were each hit coincidentally by some unimportant arbitrary independent bad luck is better than assuming there's a pattern of cause for the effect? We're not talking about one, two, or even a handful of games to skew matters -- he was clearly less effective in 85-90% of his away games than his average home game. Boy, if only we could throw away Khalil Greene's splits because "he's the same baseball player no matter the city!"